PMC MOCK TEST 5 WITH ANSWERS 2022

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PMC MOCK TEST 5

1. Which of the following was the first virus isolated and studied under the electron microscope:
a. HIV
b. Rabies Virus
c. Pox viruses
d. TMV

2. The HIV genetic information flows from viral ___________, and used to form viral ______________.
a. RNA to DNA : RNA and protein
b. DNA to RNA : DNA and protein
c. DNA to RNA : RNA and protein
d. RNA to protein : RNA and protein

3. Reverse transcription, carried out by retroviruses, is the process by which?
a. RNA is duplicated
b. DNA is duplicated
c. RNA information is copied into DNA
d. DNA information is copied into RNA

4. Which of the following is NOT true about viruses?
a. Obligate intracellular parasite
b. Self replicating
c. Acellular
d. Uses host machinery

5. The quantitative study of energy relationship in a biological system is called?
a. Bioenergetics
b. Biochemistry
c. Biotechnology
d. Biophysics

6. Which of the following chemical activity is involved in the conversion of pyruvate into acetaldehyde during anaerobic respiration?
a. Reduction
b. Decarboxylation
c. Oxidation
d. Phosphorylation

7. In glycolysis, the conversion of Glucose-6-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate involves:
a. Phosphorylation
b. Oxidation
c. Isomerization
d. Reduction

8. Which of the following releases 7.3 Kcal energy when terminal phosphate is lost?
a. NADP
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. FAD

9. Which of the following is the best alternative term for ATP?
a. Ribonucleotide triphosphate
b. Ribonucleotide
c. Nucleoside triphosphate
d. Nucleotide

10. How many phosphate groups are present in nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

11. If an mRNA consists of 150 nucleotides, how many amino acids would be present in the polypeptide which is encoded by this mRNA?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 300

12. Glucose and Ribose form ring structures when :
a. React with an appropriate enzyme
b. Dissolved in water
c. Immersed in oil
d. They are in crystalline state

13. Most abundant organic compounds to be found in cells :
a. Proteins
b. Carbon
c. Nucleic acids
d. Lipids

14. The fibrous proteins are ___ in aqueous medium
a. soluble
b. insoluble
c. least soluble
d. readily soluble

15. At least, how many carbon atoms must be found in an amylose starch?
a. 7
b. 66
c. 70
d. Many thousands

16. Which of these cell organelles are involved in the synthesis of new plant cell walls?
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. Cell membrane

17. The protoplast of a plant cell does not include:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Vacuoles
d. Nucleus

18. In a eukaryotic cell, where are the proteins for electron transport chain located?
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane

19. Which cell organelle is incorrectly matched with its function?
a. Chloroplast – carbon fixation
b. Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
c. Cell membrane – cell recognition
d. Golgi apparatus – intracellular digestion

20. Which interactions are responsible for the formation of lipid bilayer in the watery environment of the body?
a. Hydrophobic interactions between fatty acid tails
b. Hydrophobic interactions between phosphate heads
c. Hydrophilic interactions between fatty acid tails
d. Hydrogen bonding between fatty acid tails

21. Which of the following is responsible for giving firmness and box-like shape to plant cells?
a. Cell wall
b. Cell wall and vacuole
c. Nucleus and vacuole
d. Cell membrane

22. Golgi complex was discovered by which scientist?
a. Robert Brown
b. Camillo Golgi
c. De Duve
d. Robert Hooke

23. The reflexes such as vomiting, coughing, and sneezing are controlled by which of the following?
a. Pons
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. Medulla oblongata

24. The disorder of the nervous system which occurs because of the disturbance of the supply of blood to the nervous system is called?
a. Muscular disorders
b. Vascular disorders
c. Functional disorders
d. All of these

25. The disorder in which the one or more muscle groups faces the full loss of function is called?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Angina
c. Epilepsy
d. Paralysis

26. Abnormal and excessive discharge of nerve impulses in the brain is called?
a. Cirrhosis
b. Angina
c. Stroke
d. Epilepsy

27. The disorder which is caused when cones cannot distinguish between different colors is called?
a. Short sighted vision disorder
b. Night blindness
c. Long sighted vision disorder
d. Color blindness

28. The photosensitive cells present in the retina that are sensitive to dim light are called?
a. Optical disc
b. Rods
c. Cones
d. Ligaments

29. Which of the following invertebrate phylum consists of the most abundant species on planet Earth:
a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
c. Arthropoda
d. Mollusca

30. Which among the following lacks the nervous system
a. Flat worms
b. Annelida
c. Cnidaria
d. Sponge

31. Which statement correctly outlines the reason for divergent evolution hypothesis of echinoderms and hemichordates?
a. Blastopore forms the anus
b. They are both aquatic
c. They have a well-developed circulatory system
d. They have dorsal nerve cord

32. What is correct about triploblastic animals?
a. They all show bilateral symmetry.
b. They show radial as well as bilateral symmetry.
c. They are all protostomes.
d. They are all deuterostomes.

33. Which of the following react with enzyme at other than active site?
a. Activator
b. Coenzymes
c. Competitive inhibitor
d. End product inhibitor

34. An enzyme can :
a. Maintain the biochemical reaction
b. Decrease the biochemical reaction
c. Lower the need of activation energy
d. Be the substitute of activation energy

35. A non-protein chemical compound which is required for enzyme’s catalytic activity is?
a. Substrate
b. Co-factor
c. DNA
d. RNA

36. Which of the following is the optimum temperature for all enzymes to work in body?
a. 0 ⁰C
b. 15 ⁰C
c. 25 ⁰C
d. 37 ⁰C

37. What does the active site of the enzyme do?
a. Looks like a lump projection from the surface of an enzyme
b. Forms no chemical bond with substrate
c. Never changes
d. Determines by its structure the specificity of an enzyme

38. Which of the following is the major souce of variation in the origin of new species ?
a. Migration
b. Mutation
c. Selection
d. Genetic drift

39. According to Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the sum of recessive and dominant gene frequencies is equal to:
a. Gene pool of the the trait in the population
b. Population density
c. Total number of heterozygotes
d. Total number of homozygotes

40. Change in the frequency of alleles at a locus that occurs by chance is called:
a. Genetic drift
b. Mutation
c. Emmigration
d. Immigration

41. According to Hardy-Weinberg theorem, the sum of recessive homozygotes, dominant homozygotes and heterozygotes is equal to 1, what is represented by 1?:
a. Gene pool of the the trait in the population
b. Population density or total number of individuals in the population
c. Total number of heterozygotes
d. Total number of homozygotes

42. Which of the following nutrient is mainly provided by insects feeding to carnivorous plants?
a. Magnesium
b. Nitrogen
c. Carbon
d. Oxygen

43. Chlorosis in plants is basically due to lack of:
a. Magnesium or nitrogen
b. Carbon or Hydrogen
c. Magnesium or Iron
d. Bright sunlight

44. Small insects fall into pitcher plant cannot climb out due to presence of:
a. Nutrients
b. Decomposers
c. Enzymes
d. Stiff hair

45. In sundew the leaves:
a. Form flask shaped structure
b. Bilobed structure with midrib
c. Have hair like tentacles
d. Have nodes

46. Vena-cava receives deoxygenated blood of kidney through :
a. Hepatic vein
b. Renal vein
c. Subclavian vein
d. Renal artery

47. Which is incorrect for cardiac muscles?
a. Show involuntary control
b. Branched cells
c. Have no striations
d. Have intercalated disc

48. The medium through which exchange of material between blood and cells occurs is
a. Interstitial fluid
b. Cytoplasm
c. Water
d. Lymph

49. Nitrifying bacteria belong to following group :
a. Chemosynthetic
b. Photosynthetic
c. Parasitic
d. Pathogenic

50. The chemical substances that are used to inhabit the growth of micro organism on living surfaces, are called:
a. Disinfectants
b. Chemotherapeutics
c. Vaccines
d. Antiseptics

51. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?
a. Cysts
b. Spores
c. Cell wall
d. Capsules

52. Photosythetic bacteria have the ability to release:
a. Sulphur
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide

53. For sterilization purpose, generally X-rays are used which cause:
a. Mutation in bacterial genome
b. Denaturation of bacterial proteins
c. Inactivation of bacteria
d. Bacteria to become pathogen

54. If the sperms are too weak to fertilize the egg in oviduct, which of the following procedure can be used to overcome this problem of infertility?
a. In vitro fertilization
b. Incubation
c. Hatching
d. Amniocentesis

55. When puberty is achieved in girls, which one of the following occurs in them but not in boys?
a. Excessive growth of hairs on skin
b. Pubic hair growth
c. Menarche
d. Heaviness of voice

56. Which one of the following occurs at puberty in boys?
a. Ovulation
b. Pubic hair growth
c. Hips broaden
d. Menarche

57. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone is secreted by:
a. Hypothalamus
b. Pituitary gland
c. Thyroid
d. Parathyroid gland

58. The release of ovaum from ovary is called:
a. Lactation
b. Ovulation
c. Placentation
d. Menstruation

59. Which of the following is the separation point between two sarcomere?
a. H-zone
b. A-band
c. Z-line
d. M-line

60. Many sarcomere placed end to end and form a:
a. Muscle
b. Fiber
c. Myofibril
d. Muscle fiber

61. Cardiac muscles are the muscles of:
a. Aorta
b. Cornary vein
c. Heart
d. Liver

62. Which one of the following is the character of Cardiac Muscles?
a. Made up of unstrained and branched cells
b. Voluntary in action
c. Self excitatory or myogenic
d. Striated and unbranched

63. Physical appearance of a trait is called:
a. Genotype
b. Alleles
c. Phenotype
d. Genome

64. Homozygous dominants are represented with a :
a. Lower case letter
b. Roman numeral
c. Capital letter
d. Numerical value

65. The alternative form of a given gene is called:
a. Trait
b. Phenotype
c. Allele
d. Genotype

66. A man receives his X chromosome from:
a. His mother only
b. Part from his father and part from his mother
c. His father only
d. Either his mother or his father, it depends upon luck

67. “Which of the following is the most suitable term for the genotype “”AaBb”””
a. Homozygous recessive
b. Homozygous dominant
c. Heterozygous
d. Heterozygous dominant

68. A diseased man marries a normal woman They have five daughters and three sons All the daughters were diseased and sons were normal The gene of this disease is:
a. X-linked dominant
b. X-linked recessive
c. Autosomal recessive
d. Autosomal dominant

PHYSICS

69. The value of acceleration due to gravity:
a. Is same on equator and poles
b. Is least on poles
c. Is least on equator
d. Increases from pole to equator

70. In the absence of air resistance, an object thrown into the air at an angle of 20 degrees to the ground will experience:
a. Constant vertical acceleration
b. Changing vertical acceleration
c. Changing horizontal acceleration
d. Constant (non zero) horizontal acceleration

71. Ali punches a mattress and then punches a wall with the same force.

Why does Ali experience more pain while striking the wall?
a. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is lower
b. The rate of change of momentum while striking the wall is higher
c. The wall does not move
d. The mattress applies an equal and opposite force

72. Which of the following is true about newton’s laws of motion?
a. One of them is not related to forces
b. Two of them are not related to forces
c. All of them are related to forces
d. One of them is related forces

73. When body moves ___ always changes:
a. Velocity
b. Acceleration
c. Mass
d. Force

74. The projectile motion covers maximum range:
a. Horizontally
b. Vertically
c. Tangentially
d. Linearly

75. The engine of vehicle delivers constant power and moves up on the inclined plane, then its velocity:
a. Must remain constant
b. Must increase
c. Must decrease
d. Remains zero

76. 1 kilowatt = ________ Watts
a. 2000 watts
b. 1000 watts
c. 300 watts
d. 100 watts

77. The formula to estimate P.E is:
a. F.d
b. mgh
c. kx
d. mvr

78. The K.E of object at rest is:
a. Maximum
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Constant

79. The direction associated with angular displacement is given by:
a. Left-hand rule
b. Head to tail rule
c. Right-hand rule
d. Fleming’s rule

80. An object travelling in a circle at 2 revolutions per second has an angular velocity of:
a. 12.9 rad/s
b. 13.3 rad/s
c. 12.6 rad/s
d. 14.6 rad/s

81. One complete revolution of an object covers _____ angle in degree
a. 180
b. 90
c. 360
d. 270

82. Earth revolution in 24 hours covers _____ angle:
a. 90
b. 60
c. 57.3
d. 360

83. Example of mechanical waves is:
a. Transverse wave
b. Longitudinal wave
c. Both transverse and longitudinal wave
d. Compressional waves

84. Microwave is:
a. An electromagnetic wave
b. Sound wave
c. Longitudinal wave
d. Standing wave

85. Pitch depends upon:
a. Frequency
b. Timbre
c. Loudness
d. Amplitude

86. The property of musical sound which differentiate between grave and shrill sound is called?
a. Pitch
b. Intensity
c. Beats
d. Quality

87. Pitch is __________ proportional to Frequency:
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Expoentialy
d. No effect

88. Water waves are:
a. Longitudinal waves
b. Complex waves
c. Transverse waves
d. Both longitudinal and transverse wave

89. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is:
a. λ
b. λ/2
c. λ/4
d. λ/6

90. Heat capacity is defined as ______ required to change the temperature of substance by ____
a. Momentum , 1 degree C
b. Heat, 1 degree C
c. Heat, 2 degree C
d. Work , 2 degree C

91. Molar heat capacity at constant volume is given by:
a. dQ/dV
b. dQ/dP
c. dU/dT
d. dU/dV

92. If Cp = 20 J/mol.K then for 1 mole gas we get Cv =——- . You can use Cp/Cv = 1.7.
a. 10.6 J/K.mole
b. 12.7 J/K.mole
c. 13 J/K.mole
d. 11.7 J/K.mole

93. The change in potential energy per unit charge between two points in an electric field is called:
a. Potential difference
b. Absolute potential
c. Electric intensity
d. Permittivity

94. The electric flux through the surface of the sphere is directly proportional to the
a. Surface area of the sphere
b. Radius of the sphere
c. Charge at the centre of the sphere
d. Nature of charge

95. Electric Flux through the surface of a sphere which has constant charge at its centre depends on:
a. The radius of the sphere
b. The surface area of the sphere
c. The amount of charge inside the sphere
d. The amount of charge outside the sphere

96. Change in P.E per unit charge in the electric field is:
a. Electric potential
b. Power
c. K.E
d. Work done

97. Electric Potential which is measured with respect to the zero potential is called:
a. Absolute electric potential
b. Change in K.E
c. Change in potential energy
d. Electric intensity

98. When a charge gets influenced by its surrounding, it has entered:
a. An electric field
b. A gravitational field
c. Thermal field
d. Closed field

99. The flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between E and ΔA is:
a. 90°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 0°

100. Electric current may be defined as:
a. Rate of flow of charge
b. Rate of flow of momentum
c. Rate of flow of power
d. Rate of flow of energy

101. _______ potential difference is required for establishing steady current?
a. Minimum
b. Constant
c. Maximum
d. Varying

102. Which equation represents the maximum output power of source?
a. P= VI
b. P = I^2 R
c. P = V^2/R
d. P = E^2/4R

103. ___________ relationship exists between current and voltage in terms of Ohm’s law:
a. Non linear
b. Varying
c. Linear
d. Alternating

104. SI Unit of current is ?
a. Ampere
b. Volt
c. Joules
d. Watt

105. The SI Unit for resistance is?
a. Ohm
b. Ampere
c. Watt
d. Volts

106. Magnetic field inside a long solenoid is:
a. Varying with radial distance
b. Uniform
c. Zero
d. Not enough information

107. Magnetic field outside of a long solenoid is:
a. Varying with radial distance
b. Uniform
c. Zero
d. Not enough information

108. When a bar magnet is broken from middle, the broken pieces will have:
a. North pole only
b. South pole only
c. Both south and north poles
d. Magnetism will be removed

109. Transformer can convert _____
a. Low DC voltage
b. High DC voltage
c. Battery voltage
d. AC voltage

110. Eddy currents flow in:
a. Open loops
b. Closed loops
c. Straight lines
d. Vertical loops

111. When coil is rotated in magnetic field, the current produced is:
a. Constant
b. Decrease
c. Increase
d. Continuously changing

112. In AC generator, AC current reverses its direction _____ times per second:
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60

113. AC generator converts_______ energy:
a. Mechanical to electrical
b. Electrical to mechanical
c. Electrical to heat
d. Heat to electrical

114. A full wave rectifier passes ___________into positive cycles:
a. lower half cycle
b. upper half cycle
c. both lower and upper half cycles
d. One quater cycle

115. When gamma photon is entered in nucleus it_____:
a. De-excite the nucleus
b. Excite the nucleus
c. Scatter by nucleus
d. No effect on nucleus

116. In annihilation process particles move in:
a. Same direction
b. Opposite direction
c. Perpendicular direction
d. Remain stationary

117. Photons of energy 10.25 eV fall on the surface of the metal emitting photoelectrons of maximum kinetic energy 5.0 eV. What is the stopping voltage required for these electrons?
a. 10V
b. 8V
c. 5V
d. 4V

118. Blackbody shows a_________spectra:
a. Continuous
b. Discrete
c. Band
d. Line

119. Which radiation passes through black body:
a. Alpha
b. Gamma
c. Beta
d. White

120. In water pipes ____ is used to detect leakages:
a. Radioisotpe
b. Light
c. Current
d. Heat

121. The electromagnetic radiation which moves with high frequency will have ____ wavelength:
a. Short
b. Long
c. Unchanged
d. Variable

122. When electron absorbs a photon and jumps to higher states it is called:
a. De-excitation
b. Excitation
c. Emission
d. Conversion

CHEMISTRY

123. What is the mass in grams of 1.69 moles of phosphoric acid?
a. 148 g
b. 138 g
c. 157 g
d. 166 g

124. The amount of reactant according to the balanced chemical equation is called as?
a. Theoretical amount
b. Actual amount
c. Limiting amount
d. Stoichiometric amount

125. What mass is the mass of 2 dm³ of oxygen at S.T.P?
a. 1.42g
b. 2.22g
c. 3.2g
d. 2.85g

126. Mass of electron _____ times smaller than that of proton.
a. 1837
b. 1839
c. 1836
d. 1834

127. How many electrons does calcium has in 3p orbital?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 2
d. 3

128. How many electrons are present in the orbital having n=1, l=0, m= 0?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5

129. Which subshells are present in M shell?
a. s
b. s,p
c. s,p,d
d. s,p,d,f

130. The value of general gas constant ‘R’ for a particular gas is indepedant of:
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Absolute temperature
d. Molar mass of the gas.

131. Which of the following postulate of kinetic molecular theory does not hold at high temperature and pressure?
a. Gases are considered to be composed of minute discrete particles called molecules.
b. The molecules move in straight line.
c. The pressure of gas is produced due to the collision of molecules with the wall of container.
d. The volume occupied by the gas molecules is negligible as compared to the the total volume of the gas.

132. Spreading of scent in the air is due to:
a. Diffusion of gas molecules
b. Effusion of gas molecules
c. Volume of gas
d. Temperatue of gas

133. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

134. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

135. Which of the following solid has indefinite heat of fusion?
a. Crystalline solids
b. Pure solids
c. True solids
d. Amorphous solids

136. The array of points which shows the atoms, ions or molecule arrangements in a crystal is called:
a. Crystal system
b. Crystal Lattice
c. Crystal array
d. Crystallography

137. What will happenes to the KClO₃ when KCl is added to its solution in water?
a. Its solubility increases
b. Its solubility decreases
c. concentration of Cl⁻ ion decreases
d. concentration of ClO₃⁻ ion increases

138. The pH of an acidic Buffer depends upon the concentration of acid, concnetration of salt and:
a. pka of acid used in it.
b. pH of acid used in it.
c. pkb of base used in it.
d. pOH of base used in it.

139. For a particular reversible reaction if, [Products]/[Reactants ]>Kc it means that:
a. More products are needed to attain equilibrium
b. There are more reactants in the system
c. More Reactants are needed to attain equilibrium
d. The reaction will move forward to attain equilibrium

140. The reaction in which rate depends only on one reactant concentrations, although more than one reactants are present in the reaction mixture is known as_____
a. 1st order reaction
b. 2nd order reaction
c. Pseudo first order reaction
d. Third order reaction

141. The rate law of a particular reaction is Rate = k[NO][O₃]. The order of this reaction with respect to ozone is:
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. zero

142. Which one of the following is the correct demonstration of first law of thermodynamics?
a. ∆H= qw
b. ∆H=q – ∆P∆V
c. ∆H=q + w
d. ∆E = q + w

143. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because
a. oxides of nitrogen are unstable
b. catalyst is required for the reaction
c. the reaction is endothermic
d. N2 and O2 do not react with each other

144. Fe is precipitated out when Cu strip is dipped in
a. FeSO₄ solution
b. CuSO₄ Solution
c. MgSO₄ Solution
d. H₂SO₄ solution

145. Oxidation number of a substance in elemental form is:
a. 0
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. Fractional

146. The covalent compounds exhibit:
a. Fast reactions
b. Non-directional nature
c. Non-rigid structures
d. Isomerism

147. Pi (π) bond between two atoms is:
a. Formed by axial overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
b. Formed by parallel overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is stronger than sigma bond.
c. Formed by axial overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.
d. Formed by parallel overlaping of atomic orbitals, and is weaker than sigma bond.

148. The amount of energy required to beak one mole of a particular type of bond is equal to its:
a. Activation energy
b. Ionization energy
c. Bond Energy
d. Potential energy

149. In alkali metals the highest shielding effect is exhibited by:
a. Li
b. Na
c. K
d. Rb

150. Shielding effect in 3rd period of periodic table:
a. Increases from left to right.
b. Decreases from left to right.
c. May increase or decrease
d. Remain unchanged

151. Which of the following has highest atomic size?
a. Be
b. Mg
c. Ca
d. Ba

152. Which one of the following is more soluble in water?
a. Be(OH)₂
b. Ca(OH)₂
c. Mg(OH)₂
d. Ba(OH)₂

153. The color of Zn²⁺ compounds is:
a. Yellow
b. Black
c. Blue
d. Colorless

154. The transition element which shows fixed 2+ oxidation state in its compound is:
a. Zn
b. Fe
c. Cu
d. Mn

155. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si

156. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.
a. Kerosine oil
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
d. Natureal gas

157. Conversion of straight chain hydrocarbons into branched chain is called as_______?
a. Reforming
b. Cracking
c. Isomerization
d. Decomposition

158. The termination step of the Halogenation of alkanes in the presence of sunlight involves the formation of:
a. Free radicals
b. Cations
c. Anions
d. Molecules

159. The C-C bond length in benzene is:
a. 1.39 Angstrom
b. 1.20 Angstrom
c. 1.34 Angstrom
d. 1.54 Angstrom

160. Benzene is more stable than hypothetical 1,3,5-cyclohexatriene by:
a. 150.5 kJ/mol
b. 150.5 J/mol
c. 150.5 kJ/molecule
d. 150.5 J/molecule

161. Halogenation of alkane in sunlight is the example of:
a. Addition reaction
b. Elimination reaction
c. Substitution reaction
d. Rearrangment reaction

162. Major product of the following reaction is: CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₃ + HBr →
a. CH₂(Br)-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
b. CH₃-CH(Br)-CH₂-CH₃
c. CH₂=CH-CH(Br)-CH₃
d. CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₂(Br)

163. The correct name of CH₂Cl₂ is:
a. Methyl chloride
b. Methylene chloride
c. Chloroform
d. Carbonyl chloride

164. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
c. OH-
d. HSO4-

165. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
a. Primary Alkyl halides
b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
d. Quarternary Alkyl halides

166. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

167. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

168. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

169. Idoform test is used to check the presence of :
a. Amines
b. Carbonyl compounds
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Alkyl halides

170. Acetone is less reactive than acetaldehyde due to:
a. More Steric hindrance offered by its methyl groups.
b. Electron withdrawing nature of its methyl groups.
c. Its Carbonyl carbon is sp² hybridized.
d. Oxygen of carbonyl group is more electronegative than carbon atom.

171. Formaldehyde reacts with which one of the following to give primary alcohols
a. Fehling’s reagant
b. Benedict’s Reagant
c. Grignard’s reagant
d. Millon’s reagant

172. Salts of carboxylic acids can be converted into corresponding carboxylic acid by treating with
a. water
b. base
c. acid anhydrides
d. acid

173. The flavour of amyl butyrate is:
a. Mango
b. Raspberry
c. Apricot
d. Orange

174. The basic hydrolysis of ethyl acetate produces?
a. Ethanol and sodium acetate
b. Ethanol and acetic acid
c. Ethanol
d. Formic acid

175. The following are anisotropic properties except:
a. Refractive index
b. Thermal conductivity
c. Electrical conductivity
d. Melting points

176. The properties which depends upon the direction are called:
a. Isotropic properties
b. Anisotropic properties
c. Additive properties
d. Colligative properties

ENGLISH

177. I don’t like doing ______, especially mopping the floor.
a. homework
b. house chores
c. house-job
d. jobs

178. When we were in Singapore last year, we ______ at a beautiful resort near an Island.
a. stayed
b. stopped
c. lived
d. left

179. Give her a break. It was not her ______ that the bus arrived late.
a. blame
b. error
c. crime
d. fault

180. The earth ______________ (seem) to be moving.
a. seem
b. seemed
c. seeming
d. seems

181. A white ball _____________ for the first time in the 1992 Cricket World Cup.
a. used
b. was used
c. had used
d. has been used

182. One day people __________ to Moon
a. travel
b. travelled
c. will travel
d. were travelling

183. Find the correctly spelt word
a. Sovereign
b. Soveregn
c. Soverean
d. Soverein

184. Choose the word wrongly spelt.
a. Semester
b. Senesent
c. Sensory
d. Salacious

185. She said that she was happy. Which type of narration is used here?
a. Indirect
b. Direct
c. Simple
d. Complex

186. I’ll show you a picture ____________ the palace.
a. off
b. of
c. in
d. at

187. You have to wait. He’ll be with you ____________ a minute.
a. in
b. on
c. at
d. of

188. He started learning English ____________ 2005.
a. in
b. on
c. at
d. through

189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Racommend
b. Racomand
c. Recomend
d. Recommend

190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Annehilate
b. Anihilate
c. Annihilate
d. Anehilate

191. Choose the correct spelling of the word
a. Bilding
b. Buillding
c. Building
d. Bulding

192. Which one is correct?
a. The people whom will help you find a job are here.
b. The people who will help you find a job are here.
c. The people who will help you find a job were here.
d. The people who will help you found a job are here.

193. Which one is correct?
a. You thought, I was going to, but I didn’t snatch people pocketbooks.
b. You thought, I was going to, but I didn’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.
c. You thought, I am going to, but I didn’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.
d. You thought, I was going to, but I don’t snatch people’s pocketbooks.

194. Which one is correct?
a. Let’s took ten-minute break before starting the next session.
b. Let’s take a ten-minute break before starting the next session.
c. Let’s take up a ten-minute break before starting the next session.
d. Let’s take out a ten-minute break before starting the next session.

LOGICAL REASONING

195. Statement: The local cooperative credit society has decided to stop giving loans to farmers with immediate effect. A large number of credit society members have withdrawn a major part of their deposits from the credit society.
a. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
b. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
c. Both the statements I and II are independent causes
d. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause

196. Statement: Floods may create havoc in the country this year too. Courses of Action: I) The Government should be on the alert to evacuate flood-affected victims. II) People should not be afraid of floods.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Either I or II follows
d. Neither I nor II follows

197. “Pick the word which is always associated with “”books””.”
a. Pages
b. Learning
c. Pictures
d. Eraser

198. Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.
a. Light
b. Cars
c. Power
d. Water

199. To approach this question, use a sentence: “A champion could not exist without ______. Find the word that fits in.
a. Running
b. Swimming
c. Courage
d. Speaking

200. Statement: All scientists are fair. All fair people are strong. Conclusions: (I) All scientists are strong. (II) Some strong people are fair.
a. Only conclusion I is correct
b. Only conclusion II is correct
c. Either I or II is correct
d. Both I and II correct

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