1. D11. A21. A31. A41. B51. B61. D71. D81. C91. B
2. A12. C22. C32. C42. C52. D62. A72. B82. C92. D
3. C13. B23. C33. A43. D53. B63. B73. B83. A93. A
4. A14. C24. B34. A44. D54. D64. A74. C84. D94. A
5. D15. C25. C35. B45. B55. B65. A75. D85. B95. A
6. C16. D26. A36. D46. C56. B66. D76. B86. D96. A
7. B17. C27. D37. B47. C57. D67. C77. C87. A97. D
8. A18. A28. C38. C48. C58. C68. B78. A88. A98. B
9. B19. C29. C39. C49. B59. A69. B79. A89. B99. B
10. D20. C30. D40. A50. B60. D70. B80. A90. A100. D
101. A111. D121. A131. A141. C151. D161. C171. B181. D191. B
102. A112. C122. A132. C142. C152. C162. A172. D182. C192. B
103. D113. D123. D133. A143. A153. C163. C173. C183. B193. C
104. B114. C124. D134. A144. C154. A164. B174. D184. C194. A
105. A115. D125. D135. A145. C155. C165. A175. A185. A195. A
106. A116. C126. D136. C146. B156. B166. A176. A186. B196. D
107. A117. C127. D137. B147. B157. B167. A177. B187. A197. C
108. D118. B128. A138. D148. D158. D168. A178. B188. C198. C
109. C119. B129. A139. D149. B159. A169. C179. D189. C199. B
110. C120. A130. B140. B150. A160. B170. A180. D190. B200. B






1. Human immunodeficiency virus attacks which of the following cells for its multiplication?
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Cytotoxic T cells
d. Helper T cells

2. Viruses are entirely different from bacteria, because:
a. They contain either DNA or RNA
b. They contain protein
c. They contain enzymes
d. They are capable to divide with in the host body

3. Viruses usually are limited to specific hosts because:
a. They contain either DNA or RNA
b. They contain protein
c. They are specific to cell receptors
d. They are capable to divide with in the host body

4. Which of the following is a typical symptom of AIDS?
a. Sudden weight loss
b. Active immune function
c. Vision impairment
d. Kaposi’s Sarcoma, A rare form of skin cancer

5. Carbon dioxide enters the leaf through:
a. Chloroplasts
b. Mesophyll
c. Thylakoids
d. Stomata

6. End products of aerobic respiration are :
a. Sugar and oxygen
b. Water and energy
c. Carbon dioxide, water and energy
d. Carbon dioxide and energy

7. Which of the following is respiratory fuel?
a. Sucrose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Mannose

8. The enzymes involved in anaerobic respiration are found in:
a. Cytoplasm
b. Mesosomes
c. Chloroplast
d. Mitochondria

9. Which one of the following is a polymer of alpha-d glucose
a. cellulose
b. glycogen
c. insulin
d. chitin

10. Which of the following is the most abundant biomolecule in human body?
a. Enzymes
b. Lipids
c. Water
d. Proteins

11. Metabolism is about ___
a. All chemical reactions taking place in a cell
b. All chemical reactions in prokaryotic bodies
c. All chemical reactions in eukaryotic bodies
d. All chemical reactions in an industry

12. Which of the following is true about glucose and fructose?
a. Have same structural formula
b. Have different molecular formula
c. They are building blocks of sucrose
d. They are aldohexoses

13. If an α-helix of a polypeptide consist of 360 amino acids, how many turns does the helix contain?
a. 3.6 turns
b. 100 turns
c. 360 turns
d. the number of turns can not be determined

14. Insulin consists of two polypeptides containing 21 amino acids and 30 amino acids each. How many peptide bonds does the insuline contain?
a. 51
b. 50
c. 49
d. 2

15. When alpha glucose is condensed with beta fructose, which of the following can be produced?
a. Maltose
b. Lactose
c. Water
d. Peptide bond

16. What is incorrect about plasma membranes?
a. They are involved in maintaining gradients between different compartments
b. They are involved in cell communication
c. They are involved in exchange of materials
d. They initiate nuclear division

17. What is the difference between facilitated transport and passive transport?
a. All facilitated transport is passive
b. All passive transport is facilitated
c. Facilitated transport requires membrane proteins
d. Passive transport is downhill whereas facilitated transport is uphill

18. Which organelle synthesizes proteins for export or repackaging elsewhere?
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Free ribosomes
d. Golgi complex

19. Lysosomes originate from which cell organelle?
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi apparatus
d. Cell membrane

20. Which of these cell organelles are involved in the synthesis of new plant cell walls?
a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
b. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
c. Golgi complex
d. Cell membrane

21. The protoplast of a plant cell does not include:
a. Cell wall
b. Cell membrane
c. Vacuoles
d. Nucleus

22. In a eukaryotic cell, where are the proteins for electron transport chain located?
a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
b. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
c. Mitochondria
d. Cell membrane

23. Which cells synthesize testosterone?
a. Adrenal medulla of adrenal glands
b. Adrenal cortex of adrenal glands
c. Interstitial cells of testis
d. Graffian follicle

24. In which part of the nervous system will you find Schwann cells?
a. Central nervous system
b. Peripheral nervous system
c. Limbic system
d. Sympathetic nervous system

25. Cushing’s disease results because of excessive secretion of which hormone?
a. Noradrenaline
b. Testosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone

26. The target cells of this hormone are present in kidney tubules.
a. Aldosterone
b. Corticosterone
c. Cortisol
d. Noradrenaline

27. Neurilemma cells are also known as?
a. Photoreceptors
b. Odontoblasts
c. Ganglion
d. Schwann cells

28. Which of these compounds generates a feeling of well-being and inhibits the sensation of pain?
a. Cortisol
b. Adrenaline
c. Endorphine
d. Dopamine

29. Diffused nervous system is present in which animal group?
a. Platyhelminthes
b. Annelida
c. Cnidaria
d. Porifera

30. Saccoglossus belongs to which group of invertebrates?
a. Porifera
b. Cnidaria
c. Echindermata
d. Hemichordates

31. What is correct about triploblastic animals?
a. They all show bilateral symmetry.
b. They show radial as well as bilateral symmetry.
c. They are all protostomes.
d. They are all deuterostomes.

32. Which features identify deuterostomes?
a. Blastopore makes the mouth.
b. Zygote divides spirally.
c. Mesoderm forms from the developing gut.
d. Fate of each blastomere is pre-determined

33. Catalytic activity of an enzyme is restricted to its:
a. Active site
b. Catalytic site
c. Binding site
d. Allosteric site

34. The rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction:
a. Can be reduced by inhibitors
b. Is constant under all conditions
c. Cannot be measured
d. Has no relation with substrate concentration

35. An activated enzyme consisting of polypeptide chain and a cofactor is called?
a. Apoenzyme
b. Holoenzyme
c. Conjugated enzyme
d. Hybrid enzyme

36. Inhibitors which block the enzyme by forming weak bond are called?
a. Competitive inhibitors
b. Non-competitive inhibitors
c. Irreversible inhibitors
d. Reversible inhibitors

37. What is meant by enzyme denaturation?
a. An enzyme begin to catalyze reverse reaction
b. The enzyme loses its three dimensional structure.
c. Enzyme stops its activity temporarily
d. Enzyme becomes apoenzyme

38. Descent with modification means:
a. all organisms show resemblance
b. organisms do not show resemblances
c. The organisms show resemblances but later change
d. The organisms do not show resemblances but later become alike

39. Survival of the fittest depends upon:
a. Acquired characters of the organisms
b. Genetic drift
c. depends in part on the hereditary constitution of the surviving individuals
d. Natural catastrophies

40. According to Darwin, a diverse life-forms could arise from:
a. Common ancestor
b. Random mutation
c. The process of special creation
d. Inheritance of aquired characters

41. In terrestrial vertebrates, the gill slits are modified to form:
a. Ear muscles
b. Eustachian tube
c. Larynx
d. Lungs

42. The salivary glands are present in:
a. Stomach
b. Pharynx
c. Buccal cavity
d. Pancreas

43. The distal blind end of the malpighian tubules bathes freely in which of the following?
a. Digestive tract
b. Intestines
c. Coelom
d. Haemocoel

44. Hunger contractions are of which type?
a. Antiperistalsis
b. Peristalsis
c. Voluntary
d. Involuntary

45. Partly digested food is stored in which of the following in a cockroach?
a. Gizzard
b. Crop
c. Rectum
d. Hepatic cece

46. Exceptionally the positive hydrostatic pressure generated by root pressure is about how many Kpa?
a. 600
b. 700
c. 800
d. 900

47. The movement of water molecules from a region of higher water potential to a region of lower water potential?
a. Active transport
b. Osmosis
c. Diffusion
d. Photosynthesis

48. The percentage of CO2 carried as carboxyhemoglobin is?
a. 10
b. 15
c. 20
d. 25

49. Which of the following provides resistance against high temperature?
a. Cysts
b. Spores
c. Cell wall
d. Capsules

50. Photosythetic bacteria have the ability to release:
a. Sulphur
b. Oxygen
c. Hydrogen
d. Carbon dioxide

51. For sterilization purpose, generally X-rays are used which cause:
a. Mutation in bacterial genome
b. Denaturation of bacterial proteins
c. Inactivation of bacteria
d. Bacteria to become pathogen

52. A bacterial cell envelop does not include :
a. Slime
b. Campsule
c. Cell wall
d. Cell membrane

53. A periplasmic space is:
a. The space between outer membrane and peptidoglycan layer of cell wall
b. The space between cell membrane and cell wall
c. The space within the cell
d. The space between phospholipid bilayer

54. Which of the following part of male reproductive system is located outside the testes?
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Epididymis
c. Efferent ductules
d. Uriniogenital duct

55. Where Sertoli cells are present in male reproductive system?
a. In germinal epithelium
b. Between seminiferous tubules
c. In seminal vesicle
d. In prostate gland

56. 2nd meiotic division in oocyte is completed during?
a. When ovum is discharged from the ovary
b. Just before fertilization
c. Before the onset of menstruation
d. When oocyte is fertilized by sperm

57. During birth which of following act as birth canal?
a. Oviduct
b. Ovary
c. Uterus
d. Vagina

58. Nutrition to the developing egg in ovary is provided by which of the following?
a. Germ cells
b. Egg mother cells
c. Follicular cells
d. Endometrial cells

59. Which type of joints are connected by dense, tough connective tissue that is rich in collagen fibers?
a. Fibrous joints
b. Cartilaginous Joints
c. Synovial Joints
d. Gomphosis joints

60. Name the joint that allows the skull to rotate on your spine:
a. Hinge joint
b. Sliding joint
c. Fibrous joint
d. Pivotal joint

61. Humerus makes a ball and socket joint with :
a. Clavicle
b. Sternum
c. Innominate
d. Scapula

62. Hip joint is an example of:
a. Ball and socket joint
b. Hinge joint
c. Multistage joint
d. Cartilaginous joints

63. It is the basic unit of biological information:
a. Trait
b. Gene
c. Genotype
d. Phenotype

64. Linkage reduce the frequency of:
a. Recombinants or Hybrids
b. Parental Phenotypes
c. Dominant Homozygotes
d. Recessive Homozygotes

65. What is the ratio of homozygous dominant to homozygous recessive phenotypes in F2 generation of monohybrid cross ?
a. 1 ratio 1
b. 1 ratio 2
c. 1 ratio 3
d. 3 ratio 1

66. Which of the following is dominant X-linked trait in human?
a. Testicular feminization
b. Haemophilia
c. Colorblindness
d. Hypophosphatemic Rickets

67. Relatives who have children together have a much higher risk of having children affected by:
a. Environmental condition
b. Dominant condition
c. Recessive condition
d. Undetected condition

68. If a heterozygous round pea plant is crossed with a wrinkled pea plant, what is the probability of homozygous phenotypes in the progeny?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%


69. Is it possible to have a non-zero number of forces acting on an object (of non-zero mass), yet the object doesn’t accelerate?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Not necessarily
d. Not enough information

70. Two bodies in contact experience forces in:
a. Same direction
b. Opposite directions
c. Perpendicular directions
d. Five different direction

71. Newton’s third law can be derived from:
a. First law
b. Second law
c. Gravitational law
d. First and second laws both

72. The horse pulling the wagon is able to move forward because of:
a. The force exerted by the horse on the ground
b. The force exerted by the ground on the horse
c. The force exerted by the wagon on the horse
d. The force exerted by the horse on the wagon

73. While moving a boat forward we have to:
a. Push water forwards
b. Push water backwards
c. Keeps the water steady
d. Keeps the water undisturbed

74. Conservation of momentum is always applicable in a:
a. Open system
b. Closed system
c. Isolated system
d. Any system

75. Work done by the spring force in a time interval can not be:
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Constant

76. If the water falls from a dam on the turbine wheel 19.6 m below, then the velocity of water at turbine is:
a. 9.8 m/s
b. 19.6 m/s
c. 32.8 m/s
d. 98.0 m/s

77. According to mechanical energy conservation:
a. KE remains constant
b. PE remains constant
c. KE + PE = constant
d. Gravitational energy is constant

78. Potential energy of a spring at the equilibrium position is:
a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Maximum
d. Information insufficient

79. The area of circle is measured with help of:
a. Angular displacement
b. Angular velocity
c. Angular acceleration
d. Time

80. Angular displacement becomes linear for______ arc lengths:
a. Short
b. Circular
c. Curved
d. Large

81. The direction associated with angular displacement is given by:
a. Left-hand rule
b. Head to tail rule
c. Right-hand rule
d. Fleming’s rule

82. An object travelling in a circle at 2 revolutions per second has an angular velocity of:
a. 12.9 rad/s
b. 13.3 rad/s
c. 12.6 rad/s
d. 14.6 rad/s

83. Pitch is __________ proportional to Frequency:
a. Directly
b. Inversely
c. Expoentialy
d. No effect

84. Water waves are:
a. Longitudinal waves
b. Complex waves
c. Transverse waves
d. Both longitudinal and transverse wave

85. The distance between two consecutive nodes of a stationary wave is:
a. λ
b. λ/2
c. λ/4
d. λ/6

86. In frequency modulation, which of the following property of the original signal does not change:
a. Pitch
b. Frequency
c. Wavelength
d. Amplitude

87. In amplitude modulation what remains the same:
a. Frequency of the wave
b. Amplitude of the wave
c. Wavelength of the wave
d. Intensity of waves

88. Energy emitted in the form of visible radiation is called:
a. Light energy
b. Sound energy
c. Tidal energy
d. Geothermal energy

89. Water waves are examples of:
a. Transverse waves
b. Progressive waves
c. Longitudinal waves
d. Comressional waves

90. The specific heat of a gas in adiabatic process is:
a. Zero
b. Infinite
c. Negative
d. Remains constant

91. Molar heat capacity at constant pressure is given by:
a. dQ/dV
b. dQ/dT
c. dU/dT
d. dU/dV

92. For a monatomic ideal gas of 3 mole, Cp -Cv is:
a. R/3
b. 3/2 R
c. 2R
d. 3R

93. Change in P.E per unit charge in the electric field is:
a. Electric potential
b. Power
c. K.E
d. Work done

94. Electric Potential which is measured with respect to the zero potential is called:
a. Absolute electric potential
b. Change in K.E
c. Change in potential energy
d. Electric intensity

95. When a charge gets influenced by its surrounding, it has entered:
a. An electric field
b. A gravitational field
c. Thermal field
d. Closed field

96. The flux through a surface will be minimum when angle between E and ΔA is:
a. 90°
b. 60°
c. 30°
d. 0°

97. The force per unit charge is called:
a. Electric Force
b. Electric Flux
c. Electric Potential
d. Electric Intensity

98. The device used to store a charge is called:
a. Electric box
b. Capacitor
c. Inductor
d. Transistor

99. The SI unit of charge is:
a. Newton
b. Coulomb
c. Pascal
d. Ampere

100. Ohm’s law is applicable to
a. Semiconductors
b. Vacuum tubes
c. Carbon resistors
d. Conductors

101. In series circuit, current remains?
a. Same
b. Different
c. Variable
d. Zero

102. In parallel voltage remains?
a. Same
b. Different
c. Variable
d. Zero

103. Which of the following statements is true?
a. Power is proportional to voltage only
b. Power is proportional to current only
c. Power is neither proportional to voltage nor to the current
d. Power is proportional to both the voltage and current

104. Calculate the work done in a resistor of 20 ohm carrying 5A of current in 3 hours?
a. 1 kwh
b. 1.5 kwh
c. 2 kwh
d. 3 kwh

105. Basically a potentiometer is a device for:
a. Comparing two voltages
b. Measuring a current
c. Comparing two currents
d. Measuring a voltage

106. The magnetic flux is a ____ quantity:
a. Scalar
b. Vector
c. Vector in some cases
d. Scalar in some cases

107. Tesla is unit of _____ per unit area:
a. Magnetic field lines
b. Electric field lines
c. Optical field lines
d. Gravitational field lines

108. The flow of charges produce:
a. Current only
b. Magnetic field only
c. Electric field only
d. Electric and magnetic field both

109. Power loss in the actual transformer is due to:
a. Back emf
b. Strong magnetic field
c. Eddy currents
d. Weak magnetic field

110. AC generator cannot generate:
a. AC voltage
b. High AC voltage
c. DC voltage
d. Low AC voltage

111. AC generators are similar to:
a. Transformers
b. Inductors
c. Capacitors
d. Motor

112. AC generator consists of _____ poles:
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3

113. The emf induced in a circuit according to Faraday’s law depends on the
a. Maximum magnetic flux
b. Initial magnetic flux
c. Change in magnetic flux
d. The rate of change of magnetic flux

114. Which of the following rectifier uses wheatstone bridge to rectify signal:
a. Half wave
b. Full wave
c. Bridge
d. Both half and full wave

115. Wave nature and particle nature of photon is linked by:
a. Rest mass of photon
b. Wavelength of photon
c. Light speed
d. Momentum of photon

116. X-ray is the reverse process of:
a. Pair production
b. Compton effect
c. Photoelectric effect
d. Aannihilation

117. Wave particle duality does not describe:
a. Momentum
b. Frequency
c. Mass
d. Energy

118. If the temperature of Sun is doubled, heat energy reached on earth become:
a. Three Times
b. Sixteen Times
c. Four Times
d. Same

119. A body at temperature T radiates heat according to relation:
a. T^-2
b. T^4
c. T^-4
d. T^-3

120. The direct exposure of sun light where ozone layer is depleted will cause:
a. Skin cancer
b. Sugar
c. Corona
d. Sun burn

121. For two down quarks total charge is:
a. -2/3 e
b. -2 e
c. -1 e
d. -1/2 e

122. The word radiation means:
a. To propagate
b. Stay at rest
c. Mass less objects
d. Charged object


123. What is the mass in grams of 1.69 moles of phosphoric acid?
a. 148 g
b. 138 g
c. 157 g
d. 166 g

124. The amount of reactant according to the balanced chemical equation is called as?
a. Theoretical amount
b. Actual amount
c. Limiting amount
d. Stoichiometric amount

125. What mass is the mass of 2 dm³ of oxygen at S.T.P?
a. 1.42g
b. 2.22g
c. 3.2g
d. 2.85g

126. Which principle contradict the Bohr’s model ?
a. Planck quantum theory
b. Hunds rule
c. Pauli’s exclusion principle
d. Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle

127. The valence shell electronic configuration of Ca is:
a. 1s²
b. 2s²
c. 3s²
d. 4s²

128. How many unpaired electrons are there in the Nitrogen atom?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

129. Which of the following atomic orbital has lowest energy?
a. 1s
b. 2p
c. 3s
d. 4p

130. Intermolecular forces between gas moleucles are significant at:
a. High temperarue and low pressure
b. Low temperarture and high pressure
c. At standard temperatuer and pressure
d. At standard temperarture and pressure

131. According to kinetic molecular theory, collisions between the gas molecues:
a. Are elastic
b. Are non-elastic
c. Increase energy
d. Decrease Energy

132. The product of volume and pressure of fixed amount of a gas at constant temperature remains same for initial and final state of a gaseous system. This statement corresponds to:
a. Avogadro’s Law
b. Dalton’s law
c. Boyle’s law
d. Graham’s law

133. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

134. Which of the following substances has the largest intermolecular forces of attraction ?
a. H₂O
b. H₂S
c. H₂Se
d. H₂Te

135. The solid which is hardest of all types is______?
a. Covalent solids
b. Molecular solids
c. Ionic solids
d. Metallic solids

136. What shape does diamond and NaCl unit cells possess?
a. NaCl Monoclinic and Diamond Cubic
b. NaCl Cubic and Diamond Rhombic
c. Both are Cubic
d. Both are Rectangular

137. Weak acid, its salt with a strong base produces
a. Basic Buffer
b. A buffer with pH < 7 c. Neutral Buffer d. Amphoteric Buffer 138. NaCl can be purified by passing gaseous
a. Sulfuric acid
b. Chlorine
c. Ammonia
d. Hydrogen Chloride

139. When Hydrogen chloride gas passes through saturated brine it increase concentration of
a. Sodium Ion
b. Hydrogen ion
c. Calcium ions
d. Chloride Ion

140. Activation energy for forward and backward reactions is always
a. Same
b. Different
c. Reciprocal of each other
d. Higher for forward reaction

141. Arrhenius equation is an equation of:
a. Curve
b. Parabola
c. Straight Line
d. Hyperbola

142. In the air, N2 and O2 occur naturally but they do not react to form oxides of nitrogen because
a. oxides of nitrogen are unstable
b. catalyst is required for the reaction
c. the reaction is endothermic
d. N2 and O2 do not react with each other

143. The correct value for the enthalpy of formation of CO is:
a. -110kJ/mol
b. -210kJ/mol
c. +110kJ/mol
d. +210 kJ/mol

144. What is the advantage of using Pt foil in Standard hydrogen electrode formation?
a. It acts as catalyst
b. It does not support the electrode
c. It provides large surface area
d. It decreases the time duration for measurement

145. Cu ion takes up 2 electrons to give an electrode potential value of:
a. 0.76v
b. 0.32v
c. 0.34v
d. -0.34v

146. How many hybrdized orbitals are formed by intermixing of 4 atomic orbitals?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. 6

147. The pi bonds surround the sigma bonds in ethyne molecule in the shape of
a. Linear
b. cylindrical
c. Trigonal planar
d. Tetrahedral

148. Which of the following is an oxonium ion?
a. NH₄⁺
b. PH₄⁺
c. RSH₂⁺
d. H₃O⁺

149. All alkaline earth metals react with nitrogen to give:
a. Nitrates
b. Nitrides
c. Nitriles
d. Amides

150. More the ionization potential, less will be the ability to form:
a. Cations
b. Anions
c. Radicals
d. Free radical

151. Which statement about the Group VIA elements is false?
a. All have an outer electronic configuration of ns2 np4.
b. The electronegativity of Group VIA elements decreases as one goes down the group.
c. Most are found in sulfide deposits.
d. Oxygen has the highest boiling point and melting point.

152. Which compound gives the photochemical smog, a brownish color?
a. NO
b. HNO₂
c. NO₂
d. N₂O₄

153. Element that form interstitial compounds is______
a. C
b. F
c. Cs
d. Rb

154. Coinage metals belong to which group of periodic table?
a. 1B
b. 2B
c. 3B
d. 3A

155. Halogenation of alkane in sunlight is the example of:
a. Addition reaction
b. Elimination reaction
c. Substitution reaction
d. Rearrangment reaction

156. Major product of the following reaction is: CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₃ + HBr →
a. CH₂(Br)-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃
b. CH₃-CH(Br)-CH₂-CH₃
c. CH₂=CH-CH(Br)-CH₃
d. CH₂=CH-CH₂-CH₂(Br)

157. Which of the following process gives benzensulphonic acid from benzene?
a. Ozonolysis
b. Sulphonation
c. Nitration
d. Halogenation

158. Benzene is less reactive than is corresponding alkene due to:
a. More Unsaturation
b. More Saturation
c. Less electronegativity difference between C and H-atom
d. Delocalization of pi electrons

159. What is the structure of benzene?
a. Regular, flat planar hexagon
b. Regular, 3D hexagon
c. Regular, flat planar octagon
d. Regular, planar pentagon

160. Which of the following has anti knocking properties?
a. (CH₃CH₂)₄Sn
b. (CH₃CH₂)₄Pb
c. (CH₃CH₂)₄Ge
d. (CH₃CH₂)₄Si

161. Which of the following fraction of petroleum has lowest boiling point at STP.
a. Kerosine oil
b. Lubricating oil
c. Gasoline
d. Natureal gas

162. Conversion of straight chain hydrocarbons into branched chain is called as_______?
a. Reforming
b. Cracking
c. Isomerization
d. Decomposition

163. Which one of the following is a strong Nucleophile?
a. Cl-
b. Br-
c. OH-
d. HSO4-

164. 2-chlorobutane belongs to:
a. Primary Alkyl halides
b. Secondary Alkyl Halides
c. Tertiary Alkyl Halides
d. Quarternary Alkyl halides

165. If bond energy of C-Cl is 346 kJ/mol. The bond enegy of C-Br should be:
a. 290 KJ/mol
b. 390 kJ/mol
c. 490 KJ/mol
d. 590 KJ/mol

166. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

167. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

168. Which of the following reactions are given by alcohol and phenol both?
a. Esterification
b. Nitrosation
c. Amide formation
d. Lucas Reaction

169. A new C-C bond formation is possible with:
a. Clemmenson reaction
b. Nitration reaction
c. Friedel Craft reaction
d. Saturation reaction

170. Acetals are:
a. Diethers
b. Aldehydes
c. Carboxylic acid
d. Ketones

171. When two moles of acetone are treated with a base the product is?
a. 3-hydroxy-2- methyl pentanone
b. 4-hydroxy-4 methyl -2- pentanone
c. 3- hydroxy butanone
d. 3-hydroxyl pentanal

172. Carboxylic acids are obtained from fats and oils by:
a. Oxidation
b. Reduction
c. Decarboxylation
d. Hydrolysis

173. Which one of the following carboxylic acid has an unpleasant smell?
a. Propionic acid
b. Formic acid
c. Butyric acid
d. Acetic acid

174. Which of the following is not an IUPAC name of the compound.
a. Methanoic acid
b. Ethanoic acid
c. propanoic acid
d. Propionic acid

175. In structure of diamond each carbon atom is____ hybridized?
a. sp³
b. sp²
c. sp
d. dsp²

176. Position of atoms in molecular crystals can be determined by:
a. X-rays analysis
b. Spectroscopic analysis
c. Spectrometric analysis
d. combustion analysis


177. Take your warm jacket with you ______ it gets breezy.
a. although
b. in case
c. rather
d. until

178. You have to make sure the knife is ______ before you cut the vegetables.
a. flat
b. sharp
c. sliced
d. thick

179. I like this shirt a lot but the ______ are too short.
a. buttons
b. heels
c. collars
d. sleeves

180. There will be a rush for the seats when the train _______.
a. will arrive
b. arrived
c. is arriving
d. arrives

181. Which one is not a past tense?
a. She finished all the exercices.
b. Dr Smith healed the patient.
c. Michael studied hard all year.
d. He will have eaten lunch

182. Choose the future tense.
a. He went to school yesterday
b. He loves apples.
c. I will go to market.
d. He is fighting with John.

183. The man __________ wallet was stolen, called the police.
a. who
b. whose
c. whom
d. which

184. The market is nearer to them than__________.
a. we
b. ourself
c. us
d. ourselves

185. Find the correctly spelt word
a. Sovereign
b. Soveregn
c. Soverean
d. Soverein

186. He made _________ a story when he was late for the first class, but the teacher didn’t believe him.
a. on
b. up
c. off
d. under

187. The plane will stay on the runway _______ five minutes.
a. for
b. in
c. below
d. on

188. The plane wasn’t allowed to take_______ because of bad weather conditions.
a. on
b. up
c. off
d. to

189. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Annehilate
b. Anihilate
c. Annihilate
d. Anehilate

190. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Ignomeny
b. Ignominy
c. Ignomminy
d. Ignomny

191. Choose the correct spelling of the word.
a. Exhebition
b. Exhibition
c. Exhabation
d. Exehation

192. Which one is correct?
a. I’m just passing away, Ali. Thought I might run into Ahmed here.
b. I’m just passing through, Ali. Thought I might run into Ahmed here.
c. I’m just passing on, Ali. Thought I might run into Ahmed here.
d. I’m just passing along, Ali. Thought I might run into Ahmed here.

193. Which one is correct?
a. She bent down enough permit him to stoop and pick up her purse.
b. She bent down enough to permit him to stoop and pick up her purse.
c. She bent up enough to permit him to stoop and pick up her purse.
d. She bent down enough to permit him to stop and pick up her purse.

194. Which one is correct?
a. Speak up! I can’t hear you because your dog is making too much noise.
b. Speak up! I can’t hear you because your dog is making much too noise.
c. Speak up! I can’t hear you because your dog is making much more too noise.
d. Speak up! I can’t hear you because your dog is making much enough noise.


195. Statement (A) The Government has imported large quantities of sugar as per trade agreements with other countries. Statement (B) The prices of sugar in the domestic market have fallen sharply in recent months.
a. Statement A is the cause and statement B is its effect.
b. Statement B is the cause and Statement A is its effect
c. Both statements are independent causes.
d. Both statements are effects of independent causes.

196. Statement : A large number of people have become critically ill after consuming spurious liquor from a local shop.

Courses of Action : I. The Government should immediately close down all the shops selling liquor till the stocks are tested for the presence of toxicity. II. The owner of the liquor shop should be asked to leave the town and open a shop elsewhere. III. The owner of the liquor shop should immediately be arrested and tried for criminal negligence.
a. Only I follows
b. Only II follows
c. Only III follows
d. Only I and III follow

197. To approach this question, use a sentence: “A champion could not exist without ______.” Find the word that fits in.
a. Running
b. Swimming
c. Courage
d. Speaking

198. Pick the word which is always associated with: Electrical Energy.
a. Light
b. Cars
c. Power
d. Water

199. Which of the following expressions may not be true if the following expressions are true? (a) Z ≥ Y (b) Y = W (c) W ≤ X
a. W ≤ Z
b. X ≥ Z
c. Y ≤ X
d. Z = Y

200. Asiya goes 30 km towards North from a fixed point, then after turning to her right she goes another 15 km. Then she takes another right and goes 30km. How far and in what direction is she from her starting point?
a. 10 km east
b. 15 km east
c. 20 km east
d. 25 km east

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Nice and best website for blogs and educational material



Thanks for sharing

Sana Rehan

Sana Rehan

Thanks for helping kindly upload all.